Non married relationship -house entitlement after separation

[philv]

The initial message was deleted from this topic on 29 January 2013 at 21:53

[Eric Mc]

No automatic rights in law as there is no contractual relationship between you.

[Alfa numeric]

It's been a while, but I think she only gets an interest in the property if she's actually paid something (like an amount straight onto the mortgage) or if her name's on the deeds.

[Lancerevo]

Just been through this, you owe her nothing, I was with mine 10 years owed her nothing but did give £25,000.

[Ray Luxury-Yacht]

Ok, it seems you and other posters are maybe missing the big question here - who's name is on the house deeds?

If it's your name only - she can jog on for anything.

If it's in joint names - it depends on how the house is owned by the pair of you on the deeds. Your conveyancer should have explained the differences when you bought the house together if that's what you did?

If it's owned as 'joint tenants' then she would be entitled to remuneration of half of everything connected with the property.

If it's owned as 'tenants in common' then she would be entitled to the percentage of her contributions (which in this case seems to be nil) and you would have to show via bank accounts and direct debits etc. that the material contributions came from your own funds.

[snowy]

He does use the word "my" so i would have to assume it's his & not hers

[MitchT]

Don't worry - you owe her nothing. I lived with someone (in her house) for eight years and paid half of everything the whole time. When I left after discovering that she'd been cheating I was legally entitle to nothing. Had I been named on the mortgage I'd have walked away with about £35k due to the house price boom that took place while we were together.

[anonymous-user]

philv said:

Hi

been livign with girlfriend in my house for about 3 years.

I pay everything.
She pays nothing - no bills, no food, nothing, not even the car i bought her or the insuirance or tax etc. She pays her own mobile phone and petrol. that is all.
She works parttime but uses the money for herself and to support her daughter.

I did remember readign that there is no such think as common law wife legally in england.
That any entitlement to my property etc would only be based on her contributuion (she contributes nothing - lodger would testify as to how little she does around the house...i do it all).

is this corerct?

i want to protect myself in case things gio wrong.

Any advice or does anyone know the law and how this sort of thing works?

we are not married (no kids between us)

Thanks

Please tell us you wrote this on something without a spell checker?!

[toon10]

It cost me big time but we had a child. My house in my name only and I paid all the bills and mortgage. I was told (after she had an affair) that she was entitled to a third if the profit of the sale of the house. That was £33k at the time. We settled on £25k. I just went on what the legal eagles told me but like I say that was probably because of our son.

[crispian22]

if it does get to the nasty stage,you can ask for what's called a full and frank financial disclosure,this mean's each showing proof of who exactly paid and contributed for what regard's the property and furnishing's etc.

[CaptainSlow]

Ray Luxury-Yacht said:

Ok, it seems you and other posters are maybe missing the big question here - who's name is on the house deeds?

If it's your name only - she can jog on for anything.

If it's in joint names - it depends on how the house is owned by the pair of you on the deeds. Your conveyancer should have explained the differences when you bought the house together if that's what you did?

If it's owned as 'joint tenants' then she would be entitled to remuneration of half of everything connected with the property.

If it's owned as 'tenants in common' then she would be entitled to the percentage of her contributions (which in this case seems to be nil) and you would have to show via bank accounts and direct debits etc. that the material contributions came from your own funds.

I don't believe this is correct.

To get a share the OP's girlfriend would need to demonstrate they have a "beneficial interest". This could be contributions to mortgage payments or property decoration and maintenance.

From the OP's statement he seems to be in the clear.

[Mattt]

CaptainSlow said:

From the OP's statement he seems to be in the clear.

Financially yes, although surely there's some bigger questions to ask about her not doing anything!