Verbal Agreements
Discussion
I made a verbal agreement when i sold a restoration project (investment for him) to a customer at a discounted brokers fee on the proviso that if i oversee the restoration i would then handle the sale of the car when it comes to sell it. I am now chasing an unpaid bill from him and things have become quite unpleasant between us. So obviously i wont be handling the sale now.
Where do i stand? Can i invoice him for the 6% fee we verbally agreed as a 'loss of earnings'? He still has the car by the way.
Where do i stand? Can i invoice him for the 6% fee we verbally agreed as a 'loss of earnings'? He still has the car by the way.
A verbal agreement or contract is just as valid as a written one. Proof that the contract existed is more difficult if you cannot produce any paperwork. However, a verbal contract can be proved by looking at what is referred to as "part performance" i.e. one or both of the parties had carried out some if not all of the tasks which were expected of them under the terms of the verbal agreement/contract and that evidence of the work carried out (and value of that work) can be obtained. I am not a solicitor but I have studied contract law as part of my accountancy training (many years ago)and these basic principles of contracts always apply.
A Contract can even be IMPLIED - even if it was never specifically VERBALLY expressed .
>> Edited by eric mc on Tuesday 9th September 11:41
A Contract can even be IMPLIED - even if it was never specifically VERBALLY expressed .
>> Edited by eric mc on Tuesday 9th September 11:41
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