Accountancy advice please

Accountancy advice please

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wilksy61

Original Poster:

439 posts

123 months

Thursday 31st October
quotequote all
Quick picture of where I would like a bit of advise please, I have two companies (A & B) I sold some assets from company A for £400K + a £100K contribution to redundancy costs, all the money was paid into company B.

Come the time to make staff redundant, I transferred £100K from company B to company A, which then paid the redundancy which came to £98K.

My question is, did company B loan the money to company A and thus company A owes company B £100K? my accountant says not but I'm not so sure, as he now says if I were keeping company A then "we could do something"

Just to complicate things I sold company A on the 28th October 2024

Eric Mc

122,854 posts

272 months

Thursday 31st October
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What does the new owner of Company A think?

TownIdiot

1,591 posts

6 months

Thursday 31st October
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wilksy61 said:
Quick picture of where I would like a bit of advise please, I have two companies (A & B) I sold some assets from company A for £400K + a £100K contribution to redundancy costs, all the money was paid into company B.

Come the time to make staff redundant, I transferred £100K from company B to company A, which then paid the redundancy which came to £98K.

My question is, did company B loan the money to company A and thus company A owes company B £100K? my accountant says not but I'm not so sure, as he now says if I were keeping company A then "we could do something"

Just to complicate things I sold company A on the 28th October 2024
It's a bit of a strange question as you did the transaction - did you lend them the money or give it to them?

The way you put it it looks like Company B received all the money for something Company A sold, and company B transferred some cash to Company A to cover costs associated with the transaction and that Company A received nothing else. Is that correct?

Rufus Stone

8,193 posts

63 months

Thursday 31st October
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What was the purpose of having the asset sale proceeds paid to company B and not A?

wilksy61

Original Poster:

439 posts

123 months

Thursday 31st October
quotequote all
TownIdiot said:
It's a bit of a strange question as you did the transaction - did you lend them the money or give it to them?

The way you put it it looks like Company B received all the money for something Company A sold, and company B transferred some cash to Company A to cover costs associated with the transaction and that Company A received nothing else. Is that correct?
Well I thought I lent it to Company A but it would seem I did not. Yes you are correct

wilksy61

Original Poster:

439 posts

123 months

Thursday 31st October
quotequote all
Rufus Stone said:
What was the purpose of having the asset sale proceeds paid to company B and not A?
To invest in other products, I own both companies, well I did until Company A was sold this week.

Countdown

42,004 posts

203 months

Thursday 31st October
quotequote all
Apologies if I'm missing something

wilksy61 said:
Quick picture of where I would like a bit of advise please, I have two companies (A & B) I sold some assets from company A for £400K + a £100K contribution to redundancy costs, all the money was paid into company B.


If A sold the assets why were the proceeds paid into Company B?
What was the book value of the assets?
Who were they sold to?

wilksy61 said:
Come the time to make staff redundant, I transferred £100K from company B to company A, which then paid the redundancy which came to £98K.
How was this payment recorded in the accounts of B? Was it an intercompany loan? In my simple accounting brain what was the "double entry". One side was "Credit cash" what was the other side of the transaction?

wilksy61 said:
My question is, did company B loan the money to company A and thus company A owes company B £100K? my accountant says not but I'm not so sure, as he now says if I were keeping company A then "we could do something"
It depends on the original transaction. What was the payment from B to A for? Was it a loan? Was it a debt repayment? Was it a divident to the owner of B who then made a Directors Loan to A?


wilksy61 said:
Just to complicate things I sold company A on the 28th October 2024
What due diligence did the buyer of A do? In simple terms he would have reviewed the books of A (the assets, the liabilities) confirmed that these existed and paid an agreed value to the owners of A. Was the £100k shown as a loan/creditor in the books of A at the time of the sale?


MustangGT

12,284 posts

287 months

Thursday 31st October
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Have I got this correct:

Company A sells £400k of assets to party C (for £500k)
Party C pays £500k to company B
Company B sends £100k to company A to pay for redundancies.
Company A makes workers redundant using £98k of the £100k and is then sold to party D

First question: If Company A was sold, why were the staff not transferred under TUPE, rather than redundant?
Second question: Why did company A not sell the assets to company B before the sale to party C?
Third question: What transactional paperwork was completed in regarding the sale of the assets in company A?

It appears company A has transferred a net £402k to company B just prior to sale.
Fourth question: What transactional paperwork was done in company B, and what was agreed with party D