Car insurance question.
Discussion
Just had my renewal from my current insurer, ouch!! Is about £150 more expensive than some of the top results on the price comparison websites for equivalent cover/excess.
Looking at the paperwork it seems I have 2 claims listed, one for vandalism which the insurance co. paid out for, and another for what they didn't. Story is my car was hit by a vehicle that didn't leave details, I got the vehicle details and informed my insurance company thinking that they'd contact the 3rd party to hopefully cough up. The damage to my car would cost less than my excess to repair, but why should I have to pay. The 3rd party didn't want to admit liability and there wasn't enough evidence to continue, I told insurance co. not to bother anymore.
Anyways, when completing an online quote I get a much cheaper price, spoke to a representative today who basically told me that because I reported the incident it goes down as a claim even though no payout was made, he was saying it was still an accident. The question on the online form clearly states 'Any CLAIMS in the last 3 years'. Does this sound correct?
Now, if I go to a different company and don't declare this incident, again online form clearly states 'Any CLAIMS in the last 3 years', could my insurance be invalidated?
Looking at the paperwork it seems I have 2 claims listed, one for vandalism which the insurance co. paid out for, and another for what they didn't. Story is my car was hit by a vehicle that didn't leave details, I got the vehicle details and informed my insurance company thinking that they'd contact the 3rd party to hopefully cough up. The damage to my car would cost less than my excess to repair, but why should I have to pay. The 3rd party didn't want to admit liability and there wasn't enough evidence to continue, I told insurance co. not to bother anymore.
Anyways, when completing an online quote I get a much cheaper price, spoke to a representative today who basically told me that because I reported the incident it goes down as a claim even though no payout was made, he was saying it was still an accident. The question on the online form clearly states 'Any CLAIMS in the last 3 years'. Does this sound correct?
Now, if I go to a different company and don't declare this incident, again online form clearly states 'Any CLAIMS in the last 3 years', could my insurance be invalidated?
The question will be abit more detailed than "Any claims in 3 years" it will be more like "In the last 3 years have there been any accidents, losses, thefts, incidents or claims regardless of fault for any of the drivers on the policy",
Insurers don't rate on whether money was paid or not they rate on the fact the incident happened. Just because they didn't pay dosn't mean the accident didn't happen.
You need to declare the incident to any new insurer if you don't it'll eventually be picked up via the claims database they may not void the insurance but they are entitled to charge for difference that you would have paid if you declared it in the 1st place i.e. You may save £100 now but 6 months down the line they do a search and the claim shows up they'll charge you the £100 there and then.
Insurers don't rate on whether money was paid or not they rate on the fact the incident happened. Just because they didn't pay dosn't mean the accident didn't happen.
You need to declare the incident to any new insurer if you don't it'll eventually be picked up via the claims database they may not void the insurance but they are entitled to charge for difference that you would have paid if you declared it in the 1st place i.e. You may save £100 now but 6 months down the line they do a search and the claim shows up they'll charge you the £100 there and then.
Well if thats what they've put i suppose you could argue with them, but any insurer that does things right would have a question smiliar to the one i posted as the one tesco have used is abit restrictive and a bit confusing as many people would have a different opinion of what a claim is.
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